Posted by Michael Briggs on 14/12/2016 21:57:09:
VAT replaced PURCHASE tax.
Indeed, I stress again, that it isn't the fact we have to pay that concerns me, it is the way in which it is carried out in principle that concerns me. The clause doesn't state I am obliged to pay anything as a consumer, but then again I do need to buy things in order to live? Businesses may cover this with expenses but I can't cover mine?
Hence why I stated it seems to favour "money going to money" rather than benefiting those who need it most. It does appear to be in practice a tax on the poor. Refusing businesses to reclaim expenses would resolve this, people would not be able to class their personal expenditure in business categories which allows the rich to bypass the control. All for one and one for all laws rather than a rule for one and a rule for myself.
Not only that but it would save the public purse a lot of money, this would resolve the difficulty required in making a new law, whilst making the current one fairer and cheaper on the public purse. No one would be able to claim a tax which they are obliging ordinary people to pay but not themselves?
Poor people will not become satisfied by public policy alone, but I do believe we should avoid this trap that basic laws put them in but allow wealthier to be released. It would at least be a fairer rule in principle by refusing the rich the right of way they have been given for centuries.
The evidence seems to show that despite the rich having a greater proportion of disposable income, they can still find a way to spend a smaller percentage of their money on VAT against a group who have far less disposable income, who therefore are more likely to spend their money on VAT free/zero VAT products, and they can still spend more on VAT. Some one please tell me how that stacks up, unless the rich are circumventing the law by moving personal expenditure into business?
Michael W
Edited By Michael Walters on 14/12/2016 22:31:44